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Several scholars have argued that conditions in England in the late ninth through early eleventh centuries--namely, burgeoning literacy amid running conflicts between England's Anglo-Saxon kingdoms and Danish invaders--were especially conducive to the production of the Old English epic poem Beowulf, and they have dated the poem's composition accordingly. It is not inconceivable that Beowulf emerged from such a context, but privileging contextual fit over the linguistic evidence of an eighth- or even seventh-century composition requires a level of justification that thus far has not been presented.<br/><br/>Which choice best states the main idea of the text?